Do I have EVM Planned Value understood correctly?



  • I am struggling to get all the PMI EVM terminology sorted out. The last key for me was planned value (PV).

    Let say I have a task and my BAC is $100,000 and scheduled for 4 weeks.

    2 weeks in I am done 40% of the work and spent $50,000. So:

    • PV: $50,000
    • EV: $40,000
    • AC: $50,000
    • CPI: 0.9 (over budget)
    • SPI: 0.9 (behind schedule)

    6 weeks out I am done 90% of the work and spent $105,000. So:

    • PV: $100,000 (according to the original baseline schedule 4 weeks should have got me $100,000 of EV)
    • EV: $90,000
    • AC: $105,000
    • CPI: 0.86 (more over budget)
    • SPI: 0.9 (still behind schedule)

    7 weeks out I am done 100% of the work and spent $112,000. So:

    • PV: $100,000 (according to the original baseline schedule 4 weeks should have got me $100,000 of EV)
    • EV: $100,000
    • AC: $112,000
    • CPI: 0.90 (over budget)
    • SPI: 1.00 (always 1 when complete)

    My questions (have I explained / understood this correctly?):

    • As soon as you are past your original budgeted timeline for a task your PV = BAC
    • PV is the cost you should have accrued if your original schedule was correct (for the same time frame)


  • Everything you wrote is correct. Your last bullet my read better as, "PV is the amount of cost accrued at a certain time on the project's timeline."

    In your example, your PV was distributed equally across time, i.e., at the end of two weeks you should have 50% of work. Just be aware of you're not already that PV is rarely equal across time.

    SPI always approaches 1 as you indicated, which is why EV is not a great schedule control tool. Have a look at Earned Schedule. It is superior to EV to control your schedule.


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